tibial sesamoid of metatarsal head ( RID2988 )
In the interim since the injury, this man has traveled from US to and from Australia to get married. He has been in a boot, which keeps him pain free, but there is marked STS. I thought the changes in the medial column are disuse osteoporosis (agree?). Are any of you concerned about CRPS? Clinically there is pronounced swelling. Also, I always find it difficult: can you tell if this is fx or traumatic diastasis of a bipartite sesamoid (other foot is not bipartite). Clinically this is thought to be fracture.
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